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GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 14:34
With the World Cup fast approaching, perhaps a little footie quiz is in order?

1. Which country won the qualifying tournament in 1938 but never played in the finals - and why?
Austria - they were the "winners" in 1938 but then the country was annexed by Germany

2. Which country reached the World Cup Finals for the only time in 1950, but were then banned by FIFA - and why?
India - Fifa made them withdraw from the finals because their players never wore boots.

3. In almost every international match, how can you tell if either of the sides have won the World Cup and how many times?
World Cup-winning sides are allowed to include a star on their shirt for each victory. The exception to this was England because the FA decided that the three lions was a "historically recognisable emblem".

4. Where should the 1986 World Cup finals have been played?
Colombia - but they dropped out from hosting the competition because of financial difficulties.

5. Who was the first England player to be sent off?
Allan Mullery against Yugoslavia in 1968

6. Five teams have been unbeaten in World Cup finals without actually winning the tournament. Which countries and when?
Scotland 1974
Brazil 1978
England 1982
Cameroon 1982
Belgium 1998

7. Which country has played in every qualifying tournament but never reached the finals?
Luxembourg

8. Where can you find the original World Cup, the Jules Rimet Trophy?
Should I give this one to Sparky as he seemed the closest? The actual answer is....no one knows! Brazil got to keep the trophy when they won it for the third time in 1970, but it was stolen from the Brazilian FA in 1983.

9. Explain how it might be possible to score three times without anyone else touching the ball?
Yes - the most obvious one is this scenario:
It's that crucial qualifying game and Sparky Rovers are playing Munchenhausengladrags led from the front by striker, Vegy Cruyff. Forty-four minutes into the game and disaster strikes as Vegy (known by his Brazilian nickname of of 'El Comedio' and less flatteringly by his British nickname of 'shortarse with bow-legs') heads a relatively tame cross into his own net. Retrieving the ball, he trots back to the half-way line and, spotting the Munchenhausengladrags goalie off his line, he takes a tentative shot....and scores just as the ref blows for half-time.
Sparky Rovers come out for the second half all fired up. As they restart, Senor Cruyff (a firm believer in lightning striking twice) hoofs the ball forward. It takes a wicked bounce and sails clean over the opposition goalie.

10. Besides the UK, which is the only other country that has four international sides?
China - even though Hong Kong and Macao have been reunified with China, they still retain separate national associations. Taipei have been affiliated separately to FIFA since 1954.

mathare
8th May 2006, 14:38
3 is stars on the shirts

andyp
8th May 2006, 14:39
1. = Is it Iran? Because they refused to play in bare feet?

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 14:40
6, One of them is Scotland, 1974.

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 15:01
Right reason Andy, but the wrong country

andyp
8th May 2006, 15:14
hmmm, i remember reading this when i was playing on Fifa World Cup 2006 :D

1. Is it India?

MattR
8th May 2006, 15:54
5 Alan Mullery

mathare
8th May 2006, 16:04
Just seen your official answer to 3 Glos - we now have a star on our shirts

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 16:12
Just seen your official answer to 3 Glos - we now have a star on our shirts
And about time too :D

glynners
8th May 2006, 16:21
number 4 is defo a south american country, they couldnt afford to run it

glynners
8th May 2006, 16:23
columbia

glynners
8th May 2006, 16:30
6. If losing on pens counts as a draw then, england 1990, Italy 1994 - I think................ did france draw all their group games in 2002?

glynners
8th May 2006, 16:32
10. If Yugoslavia counts then them

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 16:35
England is correct, but not the right year - losing on penalties is a lost game. France lost to Senegal and Denmark in 2002.

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 16:36
Good thinking, but not Yugoslavia

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 16:37
10, Norway.

andyp
8th May 2006, 16:37
10. Russia?

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 16:40
Norway????? Have you started on the beer early, Sparky?

Again a good guess, but not Russia.

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 16:41
Norway????? Have you started on the beer early, Sparky?


I was thinking Faroe Islands and Greenland. Thought there might be another tucked away somewhere.:)

andyp
8th May 2006, 16:48
10. Spain? - Sounds daft, but thinking of the canary islands with it?

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 16:51
10 United Arab Emirates.
or should that be Arab Emirates United.:D

glynners
8th May 2006, 16:51
10. North Korea, South Korea, East Korea, West Korea..... :doh

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 16:51
Ahhh...lateral thinking. Bit of a shame they're both technically Danish though :wink

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 16:51
Errrr...all guesses for #10 are wrong

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 16:53
Ahhh...lateral thinking. Bit of a shame they're both technically Danish though :wink
Denmark then.:D

vegyjones
8th May 2006, 16:55
:laugh

10 - Argentina

glynners
8th May 2006, 16:57
7. Wales?

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 17:04
I get the feeling this is not being taken seriously....

....wrong, wrong, WRONG!

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 17:05
No, not Wales but another tiny European country.

Other clues:

1. The date is significant!
8. Merlin might know the answer!
9. Some lateral thinking definitely required to score here.

presto
8th May 2006, 17:07
san marino

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 17:09
Good try, but San Marino haven't competed in every competition.

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 17:16
6. England was 1982.

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 17:18
7, Luxembourg,
8, Brazil. They've won it 3 times.

vegyjones
8th May 2006, 17:19
9. If you conceded 3 own goals!

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 17:19
1. Czechoslovakia. Adolf invaded.

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 17:21
9. If you conceded 3 own goals!
I thought that Vegy but 3 seems to be an arbitary number, so it might be a different reason.:)

vegyjones
8th May 2006, 17:23
arbitary number Ooo

It's definitely in my counting book mate! :doh

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 17:25
6 and 7 are correct

8 is wrong :D

Oh, right reason but wrong country for 1.

And Vegy is sort of on the right track. The only snag is that he'd have to score the second and third own goals from the kick-off which isn't allowed as the ball must go forward.

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 17:28
If he shot and it bounced of the opponents post or crossbar and into his own net. Some shot though.:)

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 17:29
1. Poland.

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 17:29
8, It'll be in the Fifa hq in Geneva, Switzerland.

sparkyminer
8th May 2006, 17:30
Or the footy museum in preston.:)

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 17:36
Not Poland...that was 1939 :D

I might have to give you the answer to #8 as you're all right...and yet strangely all wrong.

Still need to know some more unbeaten countries.

vegyjones
8th May 2006, 17:39
9 By Jove I think I hvae it

Player A, scores an own goal.
Player A collects ball and scores directly from kick off.
Referee blows for half time and ref collects ball.
From kick off, Player A scores directly from restart!

Hence Player A has 3 goals with no other player touching the ball!

presto
8th May 2006, 17:40
well 2 goals can be scored by:

scoring just before HT / FT (if equaliser and ET)
and then again from the kick off.

but 3 goals?????? :doh - has it something to do with penalties?

presto
8th May 2006, 17:43
bugger just got it - but vegy beat me to it :(

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 17:47
9 By Jove I think I hvae it

Player A, scores an own goal.
Player A collects ball and scores directly from kick off.
Referee blows for half time and ref collects ball.
From kick off, Player A scores directly from restart!

Hence Player A has 3 goals with no other player touching the ball!

That's almost word-for-word the same as they answer I've provided :rolleyes:

vegyjones
8th May 2006, 17:52
:laugh

El-Comedio I might be, but who elses has scored 2 Beckhamesque goals like that in one match! No one I tell ya! :D

mathare
8th May 2006, 17:58
But is it a valid kick-off if no-one else touches it? Don't you have to pass it to someone?

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 18:02
Pass it to who? You can kick it straight to the opposition if you want, just so long as the ball goes forward.

10 more minutes and then I'll post the missing answers

mathare
8th May 2006, 18:04
Pass it to who? You can kick it straight to the opposition if you want, just so long as the ball goes forward.I thought someone else had to touch it else it's not a goal, same as you can't score direct from a throw-in

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 18:12
No, goals can be scored direct from the kick-off

You can score directly from a kick-off, goal kick, direct free kick, penalty, corner, drop ball, goalkeeper throw or kick. You can't score from an indirect free kick or a throw-in.

And that's almost a question in itself :)

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 18:29
Okay....answers are posted in red.

Thanks for playing :)

vegyjones
8th May 2006, 21:21
I thought someone else had to touch it else it's not a goal, same as you can't score direct from a throw-in
The rule was changed 3 or 4 years ago Mat!

Just like from a free kick, the ball used to have to role one complete circle before being considered in play, now it is as soon as you touch it!

andyp
8th May 2006, 22:30
9 By Jove I think I hvae it

Player A, scores an own goal.
Player A collects ball and scores directly from kick off.
Referee blows for half time and ref collects ball.
From kick off, Player A scores directly from restart!

Hence Player A has 3 goals with no other player touching the ball!

Glos / Vegy, i am confused? :doh

If the ball has to be played forward from the kick off.. how does player A score an own goal from the start? Surely they will have to kick it backwards?

vegyjones
8th May 2006, 22:33
Player A can score an own goal anytime, but then scores directly fronm the resulting kick off andy!

andyp
8th May 2006, 22:41
Ah, sorry, i think i may have misread the question...

"Explain how it might be possible to score three times without anyone else touching the ball?"

I read this as meaning any other player, including your own! I presume the "anyone else" bit means the other team?:splapme

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 22:56
Actually, the anyone else bit does mean both sides!

Say you're playing in a game...when you put the ball into your own net. It doesn't really matter how many players have touched the ball so far but, from now on, you're the only person who can.

So as Vegy said in his answer, you also have to retrieve the ball and you carry it to the centre-circle. Still no one has touched the ball apart from you. You hoof it into the opponents goal and the half-time whistle goes. As the ball is now "dead", it doesn't matter if their goalie collects the ball or not.

At the start of the second half, the ref gives you the ball and blows the whistle and the ball is still "dead". It doesn't become "live" until the point at which you next kick the ball which, by happy coincidence, you manage to hoof into the opponents net again.

For those wondering about the last point, play at a kick-off doesn't start when the ref blows his whistle - the clock only commences when the ball is touched by a player.

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 23:02
In theory, the same thing could happen at the end of a final....
Player A scores an own-goal with seconds remaining in the game
Player A retrieves the ball and legs it to the halfway line
Player A scores directly from the restart
Ref blows for full-time and the game is drawn
Player A then steps forward and scores from the first penalty

The sticking-point is whether the penalty in a shoot-out is technically awarded to the player?

vegyjones
8th May 2006, 23:03
Or the first goal in extra time glos!

GlosRFC
8th May 2006, 23:07
Ah yes...good point